mcq in opthalmology and optometry part: 24

mcq in opthalmology and optometry part: 24

mcq in opthalmology and optometry part: 24

01. In cystoid macular oedema, fluid accumulate in

  1. A. Outer nuclear layer
  2. B. Outer plexiform layer✓
  3. C. Ganglion cell layer
  4. D. Nerve fibre layer

In CME collection of fluid is in the outer plexiform (Henle’s layer) and inner nuclear layer of the retina, centred around the foveola.

02. Flame shaped haemorrhage occur in

  1. A. Outer nuclear layer
  2. B. Outer plexiform layer
  3. C. Ganglion cell layer
  4. D. Nerve fibre layer✓

20. Henle's layer is

  1. A. Outer nuclear layer
  2. B. Outer plexiform layer✓
  3. C. Ganglion cell layer
  4. D. Nerve fibre layer

21. Earliest and most pathogenic sign appear in diabetic retinopathy is

  1. A. Hard exudates
  2. B. Soft exudates
  3. C. Microaneurysm✓
  4. D. Dot haemorrhages

22. Hard exudates are made up of

  1. A. Neovasularization
  2. B. Lipoproteins✓
  3. C. Glycoproteins
  4. D. Mucopolysaccharides

23. In DR screening in type1 DM patient, first fundus examination should be done

  1. A. At the time of diagnosis
  2. B. After 2 months
  3. C. After 1 year
  4. D. After 5 years✓
Type 1 diabetes (juvenile diabetes) is insulin-dependent diabetes. It is a chronic condition in which the pancreas produces little or no insulin. It is called juvenile-onset diabetes, because it often begins in childhood. Type 1 is less common but Risk is more.
Type 2 Diabetes (adult-onset diabetes) is non insulin dependent. It is a chronic medical condition in which body does not use insulin properly. Type 2 diabetes is the most
common type of diabetes.

24. In diabetic retinopathy screening in type2 DM patient, first fundus examination be done

  1. A. At the time of diagnosis✓
  2. B. After 2 months
  3. C. After 1 year
  4. D. After 5 years

82. In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to:

  1. a. Hemorrhage at macula
  2. b. Increased choroidal perfusion
  3. c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula
  4. d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids

83. The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is:

  1. a. Retinoblastoma
  2. b. Choroidal melanoma
  3. c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
  4. d. Iris nevus

84. A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have:

  1. a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
  2. b. Cystoid macular edema
  3. c. Vitreous hemorrhage
  4. d. Central retinal vein occlusion

85. Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one of the following field defects:

a. Lower nasal sector field defect
b. Upper nasal sector field defect
c. Upper temporal field defect
d. Lower temporal sector field defect

86. Primary optic atrophy results from:

  1. a. Retinal disease
  2. b. Chronic glaucoma
  3. c. Papilledema
  4. d. Neurological disease

87. Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:

  1. a. Marked swelling of the optic disc.
  2. b. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
  3. c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye
  4. d. Normal visual acuity

88. The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is:

  1. a. Secondary optic atrophy
  2. b. Consecutive optic atrophy
  3. c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
  4. d. Primary optic atrophy

89. A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:

  1. a. Raised intra cranial pressure
  2. b. Raised ocular tension
  3. c. Central retinal artery occlusion
  4. d. Optic neuritis

90. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:

  1. a. Ptosis
  2. b. Diplopia
  3. c. Miosis
  4. d. Outwards eye deviation

91. Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at:

  1. a. Optic tract
  2. b. Optic nerve
  3. c. Optic chiasma
  4. d. Retina
  5. e. Occipital cortex

92.Which is not found in papilloedema?

  1. a. Blurred vision
  2. b. Blurred margins of disc
  3. c. Cupping of disc
  4. d. Retinal edema

93. Optic disc diameter is:

  1. a. 1 mm
  2. b. 1.5 mm
  3. c. 2 mm
  4. d. 3 mm

94. Optic nerve function is best studied by:

  1. a. Direct Ophthalmoscope
  2. b. Retinoscope
  3. c. Perimetry
  4. d. Gonioscopy

95. Optic nerve axon emerges from:

  1. a. Ganglion cells
  2. b. Rods and cones
  3. c. Amacrine cells
  4. d. Inner nuclear layer

96. Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except:

  1. a. Marked loss of vision
  2. b. Blurring of disc margins
  3. c. Hyperemia of disc
  4. d. Field defect

97. Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in:

  1. a. Optic chiasma
  2. b. Retina
  3. c. optic tract
  4. d. Optic nerve

98. Mydriasis is present in all the following except:

  1. a. Third nerve lesion
  2. b. Pontine haemorrhage
  3. c. Datura poisoning
  4. d. Fourth stage of anesthesia

99. D-shaped pupil occurs in:

  1. a. Iridocyclitis
  2. b. Iridodenesis
  3. c. Cyclodialsis
  4. d. Iridodialysis

100. In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is:

  1. a. Inward
  2. b. Outward
  3. c. Outward and up
  4. d. Outward and down

101. All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except:

  1. a. Superior rectus
  2. b. Ciliary muscle
  3. c. Inferior oblique
  4. d. Superior oblique

102. The action of superior rectus is:
a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction
b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction
c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.

103. The action of inferior oblique is:
a. Depression, extorsion, abduction
b. Depression, extorsion, adduction
c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction

104. The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of
the orbit is:
a. Superior rectus
b. Superior oblique
c. Inferior oblique
d. Inferior rectus

105. In concomitant squint:
a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
d. None of the above

106. In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary
deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle:
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same

107. In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is:
a. Simultaneous macular vision
b. Fusion
c. Stereopsis

108. The best treatment for amblyopia is:
a. Orthoptic exercises
b. Occlusion
c. Surgery
d. Best treat after age 10 years

40. The nerve which has the longest intracranial 
course is:
A. Fourth cranial nerve
B. Third cranial nerve
C. Sixth cranial nerve
D. Fifth cranial nerve

41. Glands of Zeis are:
A. Modified sebaceous glands
B. Modified sweat glands
C. Modified lacrimal glands
D. Modified meibomian glands

42. Ducts of the main lacrimal gland open in:
A. Superior fornix
B. Inferior fornix
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

43. Accessory lacrimal glands of Krause are present in the:
A. Upper fornix
B. Lower fornix
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

44. Length of the nasolacrimal duct is about:
A. 8–12 mm
B. 22–34 mm
C. 12–18 mm
D. 18–21 mm

45. Nasolacrimal duct opens into:
A. Superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. Maxillary sinus

46. Nasolacrimal duct is directed:
A. Downwards, slightly outwards and backwards
B. Downwards, slightly inwards and backwards
C. Downwards, slightly outwards and forwards
D. Downwards, slightly inwards and forwards

47. In the nasolacrimal duct, valve of Hasner is present at its:
A. Upper end
B. Lower end
C. Middle
D. None of the above

48. Thinnest wall of the orbit is:
A. Medial wall
B. Floor
C. Roof
D. Lateral wall

49. Thickest wall of the orbit is:
A. Medial wall
B. Lateral wall
C. Roof
D. Floor

50. The volume of the orbit is about:
A. 30 cc
B. 40 cc
C. 50 cc
D. 60 cc

51. All of the following ocular structures are derived from the surface ectoderm except:
A. Crystalline lens
B. Substantia propria of the cornea
C. Conjunctival and corneal epithelium
D. Lacrimal glands

52. Crystalline lens is derived embryologically from the:
A. Surface ectoderm
B. Neuroectoderm
C. Surface ectoderm and mesoderm
D. Neuroectoderm and mesoderm

53. Definitive or secondary vitreous is embryologically
derived mostly from:
A. Neuroectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Surface ectoderm
D. Surface ectoderm and mesoderm

54. Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles are derived
embryologically from the:
A. Surface ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Neuroectoderm
D. All of the above

55. All of the following ocular structures are derived embryologically from the neuroectoderm except:
A. Epithelial layers of ciliary body and iris
B. Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles
C. Optic nerve
D. Optic nerve sheaths

56. Normal A: V ratio of retinal blood vessels is:
A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : 3
C. 3 : 2
D. 3 : 4

57. ‘Safe zone’ of the eye ball is:
A. At the limbus
B. 3-4 mm behind the limbus
C. 8-9 mm behind the limbus
D. 12 mm behind the limbus
E. 1 mm behind the limbus

58. Yoke muscle for right superior rectus is:
A. Left superior rectus
B. Left inferior oblique
C. Left inferior rectus
D. Left superior oblique

59. The short posterior ciliary arteries are about in
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
E. 45

60. The canal of Schlemm possesses the following
anatomic characteristics except:
A. Contains red cells
B. Contains aqueous
C. Lined by endothelium
D. Contains partitions resembling the dural venous

61. Muscle in the lid attached to posterior tarsal
margin is:
A. Levator palpebrae superioris
B. Superior oblique
C. Muller’s muscle
D. Superior rectus

62. Which of the following extraocular muscle has
sympathetic innervation:
A. Levator palpebrae superioris
B. Muller’s muscle
C. Superior rectus
D. Inferior rectus

63. Most sensitive part of eye is:
A. Fovea centralis
B. Macula lutea
C. Blind spot
D. Temporal retina

64. Volume of the vitreous is:
A. 2 mL
B. 3 mL
C. 4 mL
D. 7 mL

65. Avascular coat in eye is:
A. Sclera
B. Cornea
C. Retina
D. Choroid

66. Which continues to grow in the lifetime:
A. Cornea
B. Iris
C. Lens
D. Retina

67. Which part of orbicularis oculi is known as Horner’s
A. Orbital
B. Lacrimal
C. Temporal
D. Muller’s muscle

68. All visual reflexes are developed by:
A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 5 year
D. 10 year

69. Corneal endothelial cell count is done by:
A. Specular microscopy
B. Keratometry
C. Gonioscopy
D. Slit lamp

70. Anterior chamber depth:
A. Increases with age
B. Is lesser in women
C. Is lesser in myopes
D. Has hardly any effect on anterior chamber

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