Ophthalmic officer DHS exam question paper 2023 download PDF
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The Ophthalmic Officer exam, conducted by the Directorate of Health Services (DHS), is crucial for candidates preparing for recruitment in government eye care services. Many aspirants seek access to previous year question papers to understand the exam pattern, question style, and important topics. The 2023 question paper is especially helpful as it reflects the most recent changes in the syllabus and exam format.
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Q. 1 Which of the following cleaning solutions is considered the most effective for removing lipid deposits from the surface of soft contact lenses?
1. Saline solution
2. Multipurpose solution
3. Hydrogen peroxide-based solution
4. Enzymatic cleaner
Q. 2 What is trichiasis?
1. A condition in which the eyelashes are misdirected
2. A condition characterized by the loss of eyelashes due to age or other factors.
3. A condition where the eyelids turn outward, leading to excessive exposure of the eye's surface.
4. A condition where the eyelids turn inward, causing the eyelashes to rub against the eyeball.
Q.3 In a patient with suspected keratoconus, which of the following clinical signs is commonly observed during a slit-lamp examination?
1. Papilledema
2. Central corneal scarring
3. Fleischer's ring
4. Corneal edema
Q.4 In Snellen's chart, the letter 6/36 subtends the visual angle of 5 min of arc to the eye from a distance of
1. Both 6 meters and 36 meters
2. 36 meters
3. 6 meters
4. At any distance where the Snellen's chart is placed
Q.5 Which of the following complications is characterized by the growth of new blood vessels into the cornea due to prolonged contact lens wear and poor oxygen permeability?
1. Corneal neovascularization
2. Giant papillary conjunctivitis (GPC)
3. Corneal abrasion
4. Corneal ulcer
Q.6 While doing Minus lens method, on an emmetropic patient, to measure amplitude of accommodation the target must be
1. 6/24 line at 6 meter distance
2. N8 font size at 33 cm
3. N8 font size at 40 cm
4. 6/12 line at 6 meter distance
Q.7 Total Internal Reflection occurs when
1. Light travelling in a rarer medium, is incident at the surface of a denser medium with angle of incidence lesser than the critical angle
2. Light travelling in a denser medium, is incident at the surface of a rarer medium with angle of incidence greater than the critical angle
3. Light travelling in a denser medium, is incident at the surface of a rarer medium with angle of incidence lesser than the critical angle
4. Light travelling in a rarer medium, is incident at the surface of a denser medium with angle of incidence greater than the critical angle
Q.8 Which virus is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis?
1. Influenza virus
2. Adenovirus
3. HIV
4. Herpes simplex virus
Q. 9 Which cardinal plane corresponds to the plane where the image of an object placed at infinity is formed by a lens system?
1. Nodal line
2. Back focal plane
3. Front focal plane
4. Principal plane
Q. 10 The ten layers of retina are composed of the following cells except
1. Neuronal cells
2. Keratinocyte cells
3. Photoreceptor cells
4. Glial cells
Q. 11 Which toxin causes lens opacification due to lens swelling?
1. Glycosaminoglycan
2. Povidone iodine
3. Formaldehyde
4. Galactiton
Q. 12 Which of the following is/are true about Fermat's principle?
I. It is called the principle of least time
II. It displays the link between ray optics and wave optics
III. It is used to derive the laws of reflection and refraction
1. Only II
2. All I, II, III
3. Only I
4. Only III
Q. 13 What will happen to the speed of light while travelling from lower Refractive Index (RI) medium to higher Refractive Index (RI) medium?
1. The speed of light increases
2. The speed of light decreases
3. The speed of light remains constant
4. It cannot be determined
Q. 14 Which of the following optic nerve diseases is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve, leading to acute, unilateral vision loss, and often associated with pain during eye movements?
1. Optic disc drusen
2. Optic neuropathy
3. Glaucoma
4. Optic neuritis
Q. 15 Which of the following is a commonly used local anesthetics for topical ocular anesthesia known for its rapid onset and short duration of action?
1. Bupivacaine
2. Tetracaine
3. Procaine
4. Lidocaine
Q. 16 A lens formed when two prisms placed base to base causes
1. Decreasing the speed of light rays which passes through it
2. Increasing the speed of light rays which passes through it
3. Convergence of the light rays which passes through it
4. Divergence of the light rays which passes through it
Q. 17 Which of the following is false about angle kappa?
1. Prevalence of small positive angle kappa is most commonly seen
2. Negative angle kappa is associated with pseudo exo deviation
3. Positive angle kappa is the nasal displacement of corneal reflex
4. It is the angle between the pupillary axis and visual axis
Q. 18 Drop ball test is performed to assess the
1. Impact resistance of glass and plastic lens
2. Central thickness of the ophthalmic lens
3. Impact resistance of plastic lens only
4. Quality of the anti-reflection coating
Q. 19 Visual information from the right visual field of both eyes is primarily processed in which part of the brain?
1. Right parietal lobe
2. Right occipital lobe
3. Left occipital lobe
4. Left parietal lobe
Q. 20 Which Purkinje image is usually absent in aphakic person?
1. Only Purkinje image 3
2. Both Purkinje image 1 & 2
3. Both Purkinje image 2 & 3
4. Both Purkinje image 3 & 4
Q. 21 Open-angle glaucoma is often referred to as the "silent thief of sight" because:
1. Patients with open-angle glaucoma are asymptomatic and may not notice any vision changes until later stages of the disease.
2. It causes sudden and severe eye pain, making it difficult to ignore the symptoms.
3. Open-angle glaucoma is a result of trauma to the eye, leading to immediate vision impairment.
4. It primarily affects young adults, leading to rapid vision loss.
Q. 22 The jump effect is usually highest in which type of bifocals?
1. Executive bifocals
2. S bifocals
3. Round bifocals
4. D bifocals
Q. 23 A Snellen chart is not appropriate for examination of low vision patients, why?
I. Because it has low sensitivity in the 6/10 - 6/24 range
II. Due to its geometric arrangements
III. Because the top lines are easier to read
1. All I, II, III
2. Only I
3. Only III
4. Only II
Q. 24 Which of the following is antiviral drug is used to treat influenza A?
1. Cidofovir
2. Dextran sulphate
3. Amantadine
4. Ganciclovir
Q. 25 The accumulation of extracellular deposits called as Drusen is commonly associated with
1. Age related Macular Degeneration
2. Cataract
3. Iris atrophy
4. Ectropion
Q. 26 Anti-reflection coating is based on which phenomenon?
1. Diffraction
2. Destructive interference
3. Polarization
4. Constructive interference
Q. 27 Which of the following muscles within the iris is responsible for dilating the pupil in response to dim light or when focusing on distant objects?
1. Dilator pupillae
2. Medial rectus muscle
3. Ciliary muscle
4. Sphincter pupillae
Q. 28 RGP contact lenses are uniquely indicated for which of the following eye conditions, where other types of contact lenses may not provide adequate visual correction?
1. Dry eye syndrome with severe ocular surface irregularities
2. Corneal scars resulting from trauma
3. Severe myopia
4. Presbyopia
Q. 29 The preferred choice of bifocal lens design in paediatric age group is
1. Round bifocal
2. Flat top bifocal
3. R segment
4. B segment
Q. 30 Which of the following retina diseases is characterized by the gradual degeneration of the macula, leading to central vision loss while peripheral vision remains intact?
1. Macular degeneration
2. Retinitis pigmentosa
3. Retinal detachment
4. Diabetic retinopathy
Q. 31 A candle placed at a distance of 3 cm from the mirror the magnification of the image is 4 cm. At what distance is the image formed?
1. 14 cm
2. 12 cm
3. 10 cm
4. 8 cm
Q. 32 The lipid layer of tear film is secreted by which gland?
1. Meibomian gland
2. Lacrimal gland
3. Glands of Wolfring
4. Glands of Moll and Zeis
Q. 33 While doing retinoscopy with plane mirror at 67 cms if you notice the retinoscopy reflex exhibiting with movement, the refractive status of the patient could not be
1. Hypermetropia
2. Myopia of >1.5 D
3. Emmetropia
4. Myopia of <1.5 D
Q. 34 Higher refractive index lenses (HI lenses) are the preferred choice for higher refractive error. Which of the following is/are true about HI lens?
I. Speed of light decreases in HI lens
II. Thickness of the lens is reduced with HI lens
III. Abbe number is lower for HI lens
1. Only III
2. All I, II, III
3. Only II
4. Only I
Q. 35 Which low vision, according to the ICD-10 classification, is associated with the visual acuity in the better eye ranging from 20/1000 to 20/1600?
1. Grade-4
2. Grade-2
3. Grade-3
4. Grade-5
Q. 36 What level of myopia is legally blindness?
1. 20/200 or less
2. 20/70
3. 20/90
4. 20/100
Q. 37 Which of the following benefits of contact lenses makes them a preferred option for people involved in sports and outdoor activities?
1. Improved peripheral vision and wider field of view
2. Minimal maintenance and cleaning requirements
3. Enhanced aesthetics and fashion appeal
4. Better protection against harmful UV rays
Q. 38 Which of the following is used in treatment of spasmodic torticollis and blepharospasm?
1. Bupivacaine
2. Ophthalmic glue
3. Botulinum toxin
4. Ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid
Q. 39 Which of the following is lens makers formula?
1. 1/f = (r1 - r2)(1/n1 - n2/1)
2. 1/o + 1/i = 1/f
3. F = (r1 - r2)(1/n - 1)
4. 1/f = (n - 1)(1/r - 1/r2)
Q. 40 Which of the following is a role of lipid layer?
I. Forms bulk of tears
II. Retard evaporation
III. Lubrication
1. Only III
2. Only II
3. All I, II, III
4. Only I
Q. 41 Which class of antibiotics interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis and is commonly used topically to treat bacterial conjunctivitis and corneal ulcers?
1. Tetracyclines
2. Aminoglycosides
3. Macrolides
4. Fluoroquinolones
Q. 42 Which property of light cannot be explained by wave theory of light?
1. Photoelectric effect
2. Polarization
3. Interference
4. Diffraction
Q. 43 Which parasitic infection, caused by a Helminth, can lead to intraocular inflammation, retinal damage, and vision loss?
1. Acanthamoebiasis
2. Onchocerciasis
3. Leishmaniasis
4. Toxocariasis
Q. 44 Which protein is responsible for the transparency and flexibility of the crystalline lens?
1. Elastin
2. Hemoglobin
3. Crystallin
4. Keratin
Q. 45 In keratoconus, when fitting a Rigid Gas-Permeable (RGP) contact lens, what specific design characteristic is often incorporated to improve comfort and alignment on the irregular corneal surface?
1. Steeper base curve
2. Softer lens material
3. Larger diameter
4. Thicker lens material
Q. 46 A 60-year-old patient with history of uncontrolled diabetes develops horizontal diplopia since a week. While performing cover test, there is a small angle Eso deviation which increases in leavoversion. He also says the diplopia is reduced with face turn to left. With this information identify the extra ocular muscle involved in this case.
1. Right eye Lateral Rectus
2. Left eye Lateral Rectus
3. Left eye Medial Rectus
4. Right eye Medial Rectus
Q. 47 Which specialized cells in the retina are responsible for color vision and have three different types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light?
1. Ganglion cells
2. Bipolar cells
3. Rod cells
4. Cone cells
Q. 48 Which blood vessel supplies the majority of the inner layers of the retina with oxygen and nutrients?
1. Ophthalmic artery
2. Central retinal artery
3. Ophthalmic vein
4. Central retinal vein
Q. 49 The angle formed between the cornea and the iris at the periphery of the eye is known as the anterior chamber angle. This angle is crucial for the drainage of aqueous humor and plays a significant role in maintaining the effect of the following structures are located within the anterior chamber angle?
1. Trabecular meshwork and Schlemm's canal
2. Sclera and choroid
3. Ciliary processes and ora serrata
4. Lens and ciliary body
Q. 50 What metabolic pathway do corneal cells predominantly use for energy production?
1. Beta-oxidation
2. Glycolysis
3. Pentose phosphate pathway
4. Kreb cycle (citric acid)
Q. 51 The child is able to pick up small sweet at 33 cm while performing "Hundred & Thousand sweet test", then what is the equivalent vision in Snellen's fraction?
1. 6/18
2. 6/24
3. Snellen's equivalent cannot be determined
4. 6/9
Q. 52 In occupational optometry, which workplace hazard poses a significant risk to the eyes of workers, particularly those engaged in welding, cutting, or other activities producing intense ultraviolet (UV) or infrared (IR) radiation?
1. Computer vision syndrome
2. Flickering or strobe lighting
3. Welding arcs and flashes
4. Dust and airborne particles
Q. 53 Occupational optometrists play a vital role in ensuring the eye health and safety of workers. In many countries, there are specific regulations and legislations that mandate employers to provide appropriate eye protection to employees exposed to potential eye hazards in the workplace, which of the following is an example of occupational health safety legislation related to eye protection in the United States?
1. Vision Safety and Protection Act (VSPA)
2. Eye Protection Regulation Act (EPRA)
3. Eye Safety Compliance Law (ESCL)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
Q. 54 Which of the following is the main protective mechanism of the eye against foreign particles, dust, and other debris?
1. Pupillary reflex
2. Blink reflex
3. Optokinetic reflex
4. Accommodation reflex
Q. 55 What happens to the focal length of concave lens when it is placed in a medium with a higher refractive index than the lens material?
1. The focal length decreases
2. Focal length remains unchanged
3. The focal length becomes 0
4. The focal length increases
Q. 56 Which of the following is used in Fundus Fluorescein?
1. Cystine
2. Fluorescein
3. Paracaine
4. Aquasurge
Q. 57 The cornea, the clear front part of the eye covering the iris and pupil, is primarily composed of:
1. Nerves and ganglion cells
2. Photoreceptor cells and pigments
3. Collagen fibers and layers of cells
4. Muscles and blood vessels
Q. 58 The IOP measurement is influenced by
1. Scleral rigidity
2. Palpebral fissure height
3. Both Central Corneal thickness & Scleral rigidity
4. Central Corneal thickness
Q. 59 Which of the formula is used to calculate the tube length of the telescope?
1. D = f(obj) x (oc)
2. D = f(obj) + (oc)
3. D = f(obj) + (ou)
4. D = f(obj) - (oc)
Q. 60 What is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis?
1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q. 61 Which of the following structures is responsible for producing tears and maintaining moisture on the surface of the eye?
1. Ciliary muscle
2. Optic nerve
3. Pupillary muscle
4. Lacrimal apparatus
Q. 62 Which of the following is not a lens protein?
1. Rhodopsin
2. CRYBB3
3. Gamma crystalline
4. CRYGS
Q. 63 Which of the following structures is primarily responsible for the autoregulation of ocular blood flow and thus contributes to the regulation of intraocular pressure?
1. Sclera
2. Optic disc
3. Lens
4. Choroid
Q. 64 During lacrimal syringing, if regurgitation of the fluid is observed from the upper punctum (opening of the upper canaliculus), but not from the lower punctum (opening of the lower canaliculus), what is the likely location of the partial blockage in the lacrimal drainage system?
1. Lacrimal sac
2. Lacrimal gland
3. Common canaliculus
4. Nasolacrimal duct
Q. 65 Third cranial nerve supplies all of the following except
1. Superior Rectus muscle
2. Superior Oblique muscle
3. Medial Rectus muscle
4. Ciliary muscles
Q. 66 What changes is usually not seen during accommodation?
1. Decrease in amplitude of accommodation
2. Ciliary muscles contraction
3. Relaxation of zonule
3. Increase in curvature of the crystalline lens
Q. 67 In the experiment of the refraction by a parallel slab of a lens, the light rays traveling from a denser medium to a rarer medium always
1. is perpendicular to the normal
2. is parallel to the normal
3. Bends away from the normal
4. bends towards the normal
Q. 68 A patient presents with complaints of blurred vision at both near and far distances. Upon examination, what patient has a refractive error with different refractive powers in the two principal meridians of the eye?
1. The patient with myopia
2. The patient with hyperopia
3. the patient with presbyopia
4. The patient with astigmatism
Q. 69 The dispersive power of which is a prism depends on
1. The material of which the prism is made
2. The shape of the prism
3. The angle of the prism
4. Height of the prism
Q. 70 Which of the following is a common problem in contact lens wear?
I. Uveitis
II. Scleritis
III. Amoebic keratitis
1. Only III
2. Only II
3. All I, II, III
4. Only I
Q. 71 Which of the following types of contact lens is designed to be worn only during waking hours?
1. The 1-monthly disposable lenses
2. Extended wear lenses
3. Continuous wear lenses
4. Daily disposable lenses
Q. 72 Which type of the following is/are corticosteroid-induced elevation of the intraocular pressure commonly associated with glaucoma?
I. Normal tension glaucoma
II. Open-angle glaucoma
III. Congenital glaucoma
IV. Angle closure glaucoma
1. I
2. I
3. I
4. I
Q. 73 The most common cause of blindness in children in India except
1. Ophthalmia neonatorum
2. Congenital cataract
3. Malnutrition
4. All
Q. 74 ok The vergence of parallel rays of light is
1. Negative vergence
2. Positive vergence
3. Can be either positive or negative vergence
4. Zero vergence
Q. 75 What is the primary goal of prescribing visual aids for individuals with low vision impairments?
1. To maximize remaining vision correction
2. To fully restore normal vision
3. To improve visual acuity to 20/200
4. To eliminate the need for visual aids
Q. 76 All of the following are clinical signs of buphthalmos except
1. Heterochromia
2. Photophobia
3. Watering and tearing
4. Increased IOP
Q. 77 Optical fibres are immune to all except
1. The electronic disturbance
2. The electromagnetic interference
3. The magnetic disturbance
4. The ambient light interference
Q. 78 Which of the following conjunctival tumors is typically associated with sun exposure?
1. Conjunctival melanoma
2. Conjunctival papilloma
3. Conjunctival lymphoma
4. Conjunctival carcinoma
Q. 79 Which area of the visual system plays a key role in the integration and interpretation of visual information, including color perception and the processing of motion?
1. The Hypothalamus
2. The Thalamus
3. The Superior colliculus
4. The Visual cortex