Optometrist Previous Exam Question Paper grade 2 - 2020 Download

Optometrist Previous Exam Question Paper grade 2 -  2020 Download 

▶️ Download Question Paper 2020 : Download PDF Now

▶️ PDF Password: OPTPSC2020

Optometrist Previous Exam Question Paper grade 2 -  2020 Download

Questions and their respective options from the Optometrist Grade II PSC Exam Question Paper:


  1. The circumcorneal congestion of the eyeball is due to dilatation of....

    • A. Anterior conjunctival vessels
    • B. Posterior conjunctival vessels
    • C. Anterior ciliary vessels
    • D. Posterior ciliary vessels
  2. The corneal epithelium is....

    • A. Simple cuboidal
    • B. Simple columnar
    • C. Stratified squamous
    • D. None of the above
  3. Normal endothelial count of the cornea is

    • A. 250 cells/mm²
    • B. 2500 cells/mm²
    • C. 5000 cells/mm²
    • D. None of the above
  4. Normal depth of the middle part of the anterior chamber is...

    • A. 0.5 mm
    • B. 1 mm
    • C. 2.5 mm
    • D. 5 mm
  5. Corneal epithelium develops from...

    • A. Surface ectoderm
    • B. Mesoderm
    • C. Neural crest
    • D. Neural ectoderm
  6. Which is not true regarding iris?

    • A. The iris is thinnest at its attachment to the ciliary body
    • B. The stroma is covered on its posterior surface by two layers of epithelium
    • C. Dilator pupillae is arranged radially near the root of the iris
    • D. Sphincter pupillae is supplied by the sympathetic nervous system
  7. Sensory supply of iris is

    • A. II cranial N
    • B. III cranial N
    • C. IV cranial N
    • D. V cranial N
  8. Which is the vascular coat of the eyeball?

    • A. Sclera
    • B. Choroid
    • C. Retina
    • D. Tenon's capsule
  9. The weakest wall of the orbit is

    • A. Superior wall
    • B. Inferior wall
    • C. Medial wall
    • D. Lateral wall
  10. All are filamentous fungi except

    • A. Aspergillus
    • B. Fusarium
    • C. Candida
    • D. Penicillium
  11. Bipolar cells are situated in which layer of the retina?

    • A. Outer nuclear layer
    • B. Inner nuclear layer
    • C. Outer plexiform layer
    • D. Inner plexiform layer
  12. The posterior end of which muscle insertion almost overlies the macula?

    • A. Superior oblique muscle
    • B. Inferior oblique muscle
    • C. Superior rectus muscle
    • D. Lateral rectus muscle
  13. Lateral part of superior orbital fissure transmits the following structures except

    • A. Oculomotor N
    • B. Lacrimal N
    • C. Frontal N
    • D. Trochlear N
  14. Action of the superior rectus is...

    • A. Elevation, adduction, intorsion
    • B. Elevation, abduction, intorsion
    • C. Elevation, adduction, extorsion
    • D. Elevation, abduction, extorsion
  15. Which gland is situated in the tarsal plate?

    • A. Zeis gland
    • B. Gland of moll
    • C. Kraure' gland
    • D. Meibomian gland
  16. All of the following muscles have two arteries to supply except

    • A. Medial rectus
    • B. Lateral rectus
    • C. Superior rectus
    • D. Inferior rectus
  17. Normal flora of the conjunctival sac consists of

    • A. Staphi epidermidis
    • B. Diphtheroids
    • C. Neisseria catarrhalis
    • D. All of the above
  18. Extended wear contact lens wearers are prone for corneal infection caused by

    • A. Nocardia
    • B. Aspergillus
    • C. Acanthamoeba
    • D. Haemophilus
  19. Yoke muscle of superior rectus is

    • A. Inferior rectus
    • B. Inferior oblique
    • C. Superior oblique
    • D. None of the above
  20. The refractive index of cornea is

    • A. 1.237
    • B. 1.376
    • C. 1.427
    • D. 1.473
  21. A convex lens of +2.0 diopters has a focal distance of

    • A. 2 m
    • B. 0.5 m
    • C. 2 cm
    • D. 0.5 cm
  22. In Jackson's cross cylinder, the combination is

    • A. Spherical component is half the strength and opposite power of the cylinder
    • B. Cylinder is half the spherical strength and opposite power of the sphere
    • C. Both are equal in strength and opposite in power
    • D. None of the above
  23. Scissor shadow is seen in

    • A. Corneal scarring
    • B. Keratoconus
    • C. Irregular astigmatism
    • D. All of the above
  24. Light rays passing through a prism are deviated

    • A. towards apex
    • B. towards base
    • C. through the base
    • D. none of the above
  25. The refractive index of the lens nucleus is

    • A. 1.386
    • B. 1.41
    • C. 1.39
    • D. 1.389
  26. The maximum limit of difference in image size between the two eyes which can be tolerated is

    • A. 1%
    • B. 5%
    • C. 8%
    • D. 10%
  27. Towards the point of reversal in retinoscopy

    • A. the nodal point of the observer tends to coincide with the far point of the subject
    • B. the far point of the observer tends to coincide with the nodal point of the subject
    • C. the movement of the reflex becomes slower
    • D. none of the above
  28. Cycloplegics

    • A. stimulate accommodation
    • B. inhibit accommodation
    • C. blur distant vision
    • D. produce miosis
  29. The angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90° is called

    • A. The angle of refraction
    • B. Critical angle
    • C. Axial ray
    • D. Critical ray
  30. Which among the following is not a cycloplegic?

    • A. Atropine
    • B. Homatropine
    • C. Cyclopentolate
    • D. Phenylephrine
  31. For every 1 mm change in the radius of curvature of cornea, the refraction changes by

    • A. 4 dioptre
    • B. 5 dioptre
    • C. 6 dioptre
    • D. 8 dioptre
  32. Image formation at different distances in the two principal meridians is called

    • A. Presbyopia
    • B. Emmetropia
    • C. Astigmatism
    • D. Myopia
  33. The amount of hypermetropia which may be overcome by accommodation is

    • A. Latent hypermetropia
    • B. Facultative hypermetropia
    • C. Manifest hypermetropia
    • D. None of the above
  34. Spherical aberration is eliminated in

    • A. Periscopic lenses
    • B. Meniscus lenses
    • C. Aplanatic lenses
    • D. All of the above
  35. De-centering of lenses is useful in

    • A. Asymmetrical face
    • B. Correction of squint
    • C. For near work
    • D. All of the above
  36. IOL power calculation depends on all except

    • A. Axial length of eye
    • B. Anterior chamber depth
    • C. Keratometry values
    • D. Corneal thickness
  37. Indication for use of cycloplegics in refraction include

    • A. in children
    • B. in convergent squint
    • C. with spasm of accommodation
    • D. all of the above
  38. The hypermetropia which is unmasked by cycloplegics is called

    • A. Absolute hypermetropia
    • B. Manifest hypermetropia
    • C. Total hypermetropia
    • D. Latent hypermetropia
  39. Advantages of contact lenses over spectacles

    • A. Greater field of vision
    • B. Cosmetically acceptable
    • C. Aberrations associated with spectacles eliminated
    • D. All of the above
  40. Shortest acting cycloplegic is

    • A. Phenylephrine
    • B. Tropicamide
    • C. Homatropine
    • D. Cyclopentolate
  41. Image magnification in direct ophthalmoscopy

    • A. 2 times
    • B. 5 times
    • C. 10 times
    • D. 15 times
  42. A concave lens always produces an image of the object.

    • A. Real, inverted and diminished
    • B. Virtual, erect and diminished
    • C. Real, inverted and magnified
    • D. Virtual, erect and magnified
  43. Total dioptric power of the eye

    • A. +15 dioptre
    • B. +43 dioptre
    • C. +58 dioptre
    • D. +70 dioptre
  44. Aniseikonia is due to

    • A. Spherical aberration
    • B. Chromatic aberration
    • C. Unequal size of ocular images
    • D. Unequal image clarity
  45. The bending of light rays around the aperture of a pinhole is due to

    • A. Refraction
    • B. Dispersion
    • C. Diffraction
    • D. Reflection
  46. Wavelength of visible light is

    • A. 397-723 nm
    • B. 350-750 nm
    • C. 293-710 nm
    • D. 305-795 nm
  47. Image formed by a convex mirror irrespective of the place of object is

    • A. Virtual, erect and diminished
    • B. Virtual, erect and magnified
    • C. Real, inverted and diminished
    • D. Real, inverted and magnified
  48. Following are used for nomenclature of prisms

    • A. Centrad
    • B. Prism dioptre
    • C. Angle of deviation
    • D. All of the above
  49. If the object is at infinity in front of a convex lens an image is formed at the

    • A. Infinity
    • B. Centre of curvature
    • C. Focal point
    • D. Between center of curvature and focal point
  50. In a Sturm's Conoid with a vertical meridian more curved than the horizontal meridian the image formed at point B is....

    • A. Oval ellipse
    • B. Horizontal line
    • C. Vertical line
    • D. Circle
  51. Bausch and Lamb keratometer works on the principle of

    • A. Variable image size and variable object size
    • B. Variable object size and constant image size
    • C. Constant object size and variable image size
    • D. Constant object size and constant image size
  52. The maximum power of cylinder in an usual trial set is

    • A. 9 dioptre
    • B. 4 dioptre
    • C. 5 dioptre
    • D. 6 dioptre
  53. Scheiner's principle is used in

    • A. Keratometry
    • B. Phoropter
    • C. Autorefractometer
    • D. Streak retinoscopy
  54. Which is not true about the Duochrome test?

    • A. It is based on chromatic aberration
    • B. It is a subjective method of refraction
    • C. Red and green goggles are necessary
    • D. The normal human eye is myopic for blue color
  55. False about Jacksons cross cylinder

    • A. It is used to check the accuracy of axis and power of cylinder
    • B. The principle of oblique cylinders is used to check the axis
    • C. The cylindrical power is half the power of the sphere
    • D. The handle is set at an angle of 45 degree from the axis of the cylinder
  56. Rigid intraocular lens is made up of

    • A. Acrylic
    • B. PMMA
    • C. Silicon
    • D. Hydrogel
  57. SRK formula is

    • A. PA-2.5L-0.9 K
    • B. PA+2.5L+0.9K
    • C. PA+0.9K-2.5K
    • D. PA-0.9K-2.5LK-2
  58. Synoptophore is used to

    • A. Measure objective and subjective angles of squint
    • B. Assess degrees of binocular single vision
    • C. All of the above
    • D. None of the above
  59. Following are limitations of aphakic glasses except

    • A. Roving ring scotoma
    • B. Image magnification by 30%
    • C. Accommodation is present
    • D. Spherical aberration produces pin cushion effect
  60. Pupilometer is used to

    • A. Check inter pupillary distance
    • B. Pupil reaction
    • C. Relative afferent pupillary defect
    • D. Pupil size
  61. The usual pantoscopic tilt of spectacles is around

    • A. 15°
    • B. 7°
    • C. 20°
    • D. 25°
  62. Most commonly used broad spectrum topical antibiotic is

    • A. Moxifloxicin
    • B. Levofloxicin
    • C. Gentamicin
    • D. Tobramycin
  63. The usual size of pinhole is

    • A. 1.2 mm
    • B. 3 mm
    • C. 0.5 mm
    • D. 1.5 mm
  64. Instrument used to assess the shape of anterior surface of cornea is

    • A. Retinoscope
    • B. Phoropter
    • C. Placido's Disc
    • D. Ophthalmoscope
  65. RAF rule is used for all except

    • A. Near point of accommodation
    • B. Near point of convergence
    • C. Orthoptic exercises
    • D. Pupil size
  66. The most accurate method of intraocular pressure measurement is

    • A. Schiotz tonometer
    • B. Tonopen
    • C. Goldmann Applanation tonometer
    • D. Perkins tonometer
  67. The most preferred technique of automated perimetry is

    • A. Goldmann perimetry
    • B. Octopus perimetry
    • C. Listers perimetry
    • D. Humphrey field analyser
  68. Ectatic cicatrix of cornea in which iris is incarcerated is known as

    • A. Leucoma
    • B. Adherent leucoma
    • C. Anterior staphyloma
    • D. Macula
  69. Antifungal drug used for corneal ulcer

    • A. Natamycin
    • B. Acyclovir
    • C. Gentamicin
    • D. Ganciclovir
  70. Prostaglandin analogue used for treatment of primary open angle glaucoma

    • A. Brimonidine
    • B. Latanoprost
    • C. Dorzolamide
    • D. Brinzolamide
  71. Follicles in conjunctiva are seen with all except

    • A. Trachoma
    • B. Viral conjunctivitis
    • C. Spring catarrh
    • D. Pilocarpine
  72. Strongest cycloplegic mydriatic drug is

    • A. Atropine
    • B. Homatropine
    • C. Cyclopentolate
    • D. Tropicamide
  73. The most common cause of bilateral proptosis is

    • A. Pseudotumor
    • B. Lymphoma
    • C. Thyroid eye disease
    • D. Secondarie
  74. All are causes of ptosis except

    • A. Third nerve palsy
    • B. Horner's syndrome
    • C. Lid Tumors
    • D. Coloboma lid
  75. Probing is done for

    • A. Chronic dacryocystitis
    • B. Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction
    • C. Acute dacryocystitis
    • D. Mucocele of lacrimal sac
  76. Following are fungi causing corneal ulcer except

    • A. Candida
    • B. Fusarium
    • C. Aspergillus
    • D. Staphylococcus
  77. Following are causes of optic disc oedema except

    • A. Papilloedema
    • B. Central retinal venous occlusion
    • C. Optic atrophy
    • D. Optic neuritis
  78. Total number of layers in retina

    • A. 10
    • B. 8
    • C. 11
    • D. 12
  79. All of the following are age related acquired cataract except

    • A. Cortical cataract
    • B. Posterior subcapsular cataract
    • C. Lamellar cataract
    • D. Nuclear cataract
  80. All of the following are associated with acute anterior uveitis except

    • A. Cells
    • B. Flare
    • C. Keratic precipitates
    • D. Choroiditis
  81. Angle of anterior chamber is visualized by

    • A. Tonometry
    • B. Gonioscopy
    • C. Slit lamp biomicroscopy
    • D. Ophthalmoscopy
  82. Which among the following are grades of Binocular single vision?

    • A. Simultaneous perception
    • B. Fusion
    • C. Stereopsis
    • D. All of the above
  83. Manifest divergent squint is

    • A. Esotropia
    • B. Exotropia
    • C. Esophoria
    • D. Exophoria
  84. The most common type of Amblyopia among the following is

    • A. Strabismic amblyopia
    • B. Meridional amblyopia
    • C. Ametropic amblyopia
    • D. Stimulus deprivation amblyopia
  85. Angle between optical axis and pupillary axis is known as

    • A. Angle kappa
    • B. Angle gamma
    • C. Angle alpha
    • D. Angle delta
  86. Most severe chemical injuries occur with

    • A. Inorganic acids
    • B. Alkali
    • C. Salts
    • D. Organic acids
  87. Rosette shaped cataract is seen in

    • A. Penetrating trauma
    • B. Blunt trauma
    • C. Rupture globe
    • D. Perforating trauma
  88. The type of retinal detachment which occurs following retinal tears or holes is

    • A. Rhegmatogenous
    • B. Exudative
    • C. Tractional
    • D. All of the above
  89. Laser photocoagulation is done for which of the following stages of Diabetic retinopathy?

    • A. Mild non proliferative
    • B. Moderate non proliferative
    • C. High risk proliferative
    • D. Tractional detachment
  90. Bifocals are prescribed in which type of squint?

    • A. Exotropia for distance
    • B. Esotropia for distance
    • C. Esotropia for near
    • D. Exotropia for near
  91. Who is the Chairman of the District Blindness Control Society?

    • A. District Magistrate
    • B. District Collector
    • C. Chief Medical Officer
    • D. Civil Surgeon
  92. Vision 2020 aims to bring down blindness to how much percentage by the year 2020?

    • A. 1%
    • B. 0.3%
    • C. 0.75%
    • D. 2.2%
  93. Post mortem enucleation for corneal transplantation should be ideally done within how many hours of death?

    • A. 8-12 hours
    • B. 4-6 hours
    • C. 10-12 hours
    • D. 24 hours
  94. The year in which NPCB was launched in India

    • A. 1976
    • B. 1974
    • C. 1984
    • D. 1986
  95. Blindness in premature and low birth weight infants can occur due to

    • A. Retinoblastoma
    • B. Retinopathy of prematurity
    • C. Retinitis
    • D. Choroiditis
  96. Sterilization with steam under pressure is done by

    • A. Hot air oven
    • B. Autoclaving
    • C. Ethylene oxide
    • D. Glutaraldehyde
  97. Following are optical low visual aids except

    • A. Stand magnifier
    • B. Closed circuit television
    • C. Telescope
    • D. White cane
  98. SAFE strategy is implemented for control of

    • A. Diabetes
    • B. Childhood blindness
    • C. Trachoma
    • D. Injuries
  99. The most common cause of blindness in India is

    • A. Diabetic retinopathy
    • B. Glaucoma
    • C. Age related macular degeneration
    • D. Cataract
  100. Sterilization of operation theater is done by

    • A. Formaldehyde
    • B. Ethylene oxide
    • C. Hot air oven
    • D. Glutaraldehyde


Previous Post Next Post
//disable Text Selection and Copying