Optometrist Grade II PSC Exam Question paper 2018 Download pdf

Optometrist Grade II Public Service Commission (PSC) Exam Question paper 2018 Download pdf

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This is a question paper for the Optometrist Grade II Public Service Commission (PSC) Exam conducted by the Department of Health Services on August 14, 2018. The document contains 80 multiple-choice questions related to optometry, covering topics such as ocular anatomy, refractive errors, contact lenses, visual acuity, diagnostic tools, and ocular conditions. Each question is followed by four answer options (A, B, C, D), and the final page provides the answer key for all questions. The source of the document is credited to "Optometry Fans" with a website reference (www.optometry.fans).

Optometrist Grade II Public Service Commission (PSC) Exam Question paper 2018 Download pdf


1. **1 mm increase in axial length of eye produces myopia of**
   - A. 3 Diopter
   - B. 6 Diopter
   - C. 1 Diopter
   - D. 4.5 Diopter

2. **Newborn eyes are usually**
   - A. Myopic
   - B. Hypermetropic
   - C. Emmetropic
   - D. Astigmatic

3. **Senile nuclear cataract produces**
   - A. Index myopia
   - B. Index hypermetropia
   - C. Curvature myopia
   - D. Curvature hypermetropia

4. **All the following drugs are cycloplegics EXCEPT**
   - A. Atropine
   - B. Cyclopentolate
   - C. Homatropine
   - D. Pilocarpine

5. **All the following are true about Rigid Gas Permeable lenses EXCEPT**
   - A. Provides sharp vision
   - B. Require adaptation
   - C. Poor oxygen delivery
   - D. Associated with minimal deposits

6. **High index lenses have a refractive index of about**
   - A. 1.56-1.67
   - B. 1.42-1.52
   - C. 1.84-1.88
   - D. 1.38-1.40

7. **Refractive index of crown glass**
   - A. 1.67
   - B. 1.52
   - C. 1.73
   - D. 1.58

8. **The handle of the cross cylinder is at an angle of degrees to both axes.**
   - A. 45 degrees
   - B. 90 degrees
   - C. 30 degrees
   - D. 60 degrees

9. **Soft contact lenses are made of**
   - A. Polymethyl methacrylate PMMA
   - B. Silicone
   - C. Cellulose acetate butyrate
   - D. Hydroxyethyl ethyl methacrylate (HEMA)

10. **Binocular diplopia is seen in**
    - A. Paralytic squint
    - B. Concomitant squint
    - C. Cataract
    - D. Subluxation of lens

11. **Visual acuity of 6/60 is equivalent to Log MAR**
    - A. +0.5
    - B. +0.1
    - C. +1
    - D. +0.6

12. **Superior extent of the visual field is**
    - A. 90 degrees
    - B. 60 degrees
    - C. 80 degrees
    - D. 50 degrees

13. **Pelli Robson chart is used to assess**
    - A. Visual acuity in children
    - B. Colour vision
    - C. Contrast sensitivity
    - D. Dark adaptation

14. **In acute angle closure glaucoma, the anterior chamber is**
    - A. shallow
    - B. Deep
    - C. Normal
    - D. Irregular

15. **Instrument used to assess the angle of Anterior Chamber**
    - A. 90 D lens
    - B. Gonioscope
    - C. Hruby lens
    - D. 20 D lens

16. **All of the following are true of applanation tonometry EXCEPT**
    - A. Based on Imbert Fick Principle
    - B. More accurate than Schiotz
    - C. Flatters an area of 3.06 mm diameter
    - D. Less accurate than Schiotz

17. **Primary action of superior oblique muscle is**
    - A. Elevation
    - B. Depressive
    - C. Intorsion
    - D. Adduction

18. **Radius of curvature of the posterior surface of lens**
    - A. 10 mm
    - B. 6 mm
    - C. 12 mm
    - D. 4 mm

19. **Bending of light as it passes along the edge of an object**
    - A. Spherical aberration
    - B. Diffraction
    - C. Chromatic aberration
    - D. Decentration

20. **Amount of hypermetropia normally corrected by the inherent tone of ciliary muscle**
    - A. Facultative
    - B. Manifest
    - C. Latent
    - D. Absolute

21. **Normal depth of anterior chamber is**
    - A. 5 mm
    - B. 4.5 mm
    - C. 2.5 mm
    - D. 1 mm

22. **The amplitude of accommodation at the age of 10 years**
    - A. 3 Diopter
    - B. 14 Diopter
    - C. 10 Diopter
    - D. 5 Diopter

23. **All the following signs are usually associated with myopia EXCEPT**
    - A. Large eyeballs
    - B. Deep anterior chamber
    - C. Esophoria
    - D. Exophoria

24. **Astigmatism in which the two principal meridians are not at right angles to each other?**
    - A. Oblique astigmatism
    - B. Regular astigmatism with the rule
    - C. Irregular astigmatism
    - D. Bi oblique astigmatism

25. **All the following are features of aphakia EXCEPT**
    - A. Deep anterior chamber
    - B. Iridodonesis
    - C. Jet black pupil
    - D. Shallow anterior chamber

26. **Image magnification with aphakic spectacle lens is**
    - A. 10%
    - B. 30%
    - C. 5%
    - D. 8%

27. **Large corneal scar usually produces**
    - A. Irregular astigmatism
    - B. Bi oblique astigmatism
    - C. Oblique astigmatism
    - D. Regular astigmatism against the rule

28. **All the following are true of pterygium EXCEPT**
    - A. Occurs more commonly in elderly people doing outdoor work
    - B. Seen in the interpalpebral exposed areas
    - C. Never progresses
    - D. Seen as a triangular fold of conjunctiva loosely adherent to sclera

29. **Lateral rectus muscle is supplied by**
    - A. Third cranial nerve
    - B. Fourth cranial nerve
    - C. Second cranial nerve
    - D. Sixth cranial nerve

30. **Convergence weakness produces**
    - A. Exophoria greater for near
    - B. Esophoria greater for near
    - C. Exophoria greater for distance
    - D. Esophoria greater for distance

31. **Most common childhood intraocular malignant tumour**
    - A. Malignant melanoma
    - B. Retinoblastoma
    - C. Lymphoma
    - D. Hemangioma

32. **National programme for control of blindness was launched in the year**
    - A. 1983
    - B. 1990
    - C. 1976
    - D. 1996

33. **Maddox wing is used for**
    - A. Subjective testing of phoria for near
    - B. Subjective testing of phoria for distance
    - C. Detecting suppression
    - D. Testing stereopsis

34. **Occlusion or patching of better eye is the mainstay of treatment for**
    - A. Anomalous retinal correspondence
    - B. Suppression
    - C. Eccentric fixation
    - D. Amblyopia

35. **In Duochrome test, if the patient appreciates red better than green, it indicates correction is**
    - A. Hypermetropic
    - B. Myopic
    - C. Emmetropic
    - D. Astigmatic

36. **When retinoscopy is done at 1 meter distance and there is no movement of red reflex, it indicates**
    - A. Hypermetropia of 1 Diopter
    - B. Myopia >1 Diopter
    - C. Myopia of 1 Diopter
    - D. Hypermetropia >1 Diopter

37. **Dendritic corneal ulcer is caused by**
    - A. Pneumococcus
    - B. Staphylococcus
    - C. Fusarium
    - D. Herpes simplex virus

38. **Corneal curvature is measured by**
    - A. Keratometry
    - B. A scan
    - C. Pachymetry
    - D. Specular microscopy

39. **If the visual acuity improves with pinhole, the cause of defective vision is**
    - A. Cataract
    - B. Refractive error
    - C. Macular degeneration
    - D. Corneal opacity

40. **Which is true about aphakic glasses?**
    - A. Image magnification of 80%
    - B. Best method to correct aphakia
    - C. Produces spherical aberrations causing pin cushion distortion
    - D. Wider field of vision

41. **Which of the following is not a contraindication for use of donor cornea?**
    - A. Rabies
    - B. HIV
    - C. Myopia
    - D. Death from unknown cause

42. **On cover-uncover test, if there is inward movement of eye under cover, it indicates**
    - A. Exophoria
    - B. Esophoria
    - C. Orthophoria
    - D. Esotropia

43. **In worth's four dot test, if the patient sees only two red lights, indicates**
    - A. Diplopia
    - B. Abnormal retinal correspondence
    - C. Normal binocular vision
    - D. Left eye suppression

44. **In Schirmer's 1 test, if the wetting is between 5 and 10 mm, it indicates**
    - A. Severe dry eye
    - B. Normal
    - C. Moderate dry eye
    - D. Mild dry eye

45. **Corneal thickness is measured by**
    - A. Placido's disc
    - B. Pachymeter
    - C. A scan
    - D. 90 D lens

46. **Mydriatic cycloplegic drug is indicated in which of the following conditions?**
    - A. Acute iridocyclitis
    - B. Acute conjunctivitis
    - C. Acute congestive glaucoma
    - D. Episcleritis

47. **Which of the following is an ocular emergency?**
    - A. Cataract
    - B. Viral conjunctivitis
    - C. Open angle glaucoma
    - D. Acute congestive glaucoma

48. **Unit of measurement of convergence**
    - A. Diopter
    - B. Metre angle
    - C. Millimeter
    - D. Degrees

49. **Snowflake cataract is seen in**
    - A. Trauma
    - B. Steroid use
    - C. Hyperparathyroidism
    - D. Diabetes

50. **One predisposing factor for hordeolum externum**
    - A. Hypertension
    - B. Uncorrected refractive error
    - C. Ptosis
    - D. Proptosis

51. **Vertex power of spectacle lens is measured by**
    - A. Optical pachymeter
    - B. Specular microscope
    - C. Hruby lens
    - D. Lensometer

52. **All the following are features of Vitamin A deficiency EXCEPT**
    - A. Night blindness
    - B. Bitot's spots
    - C. Phlycten
    - D. Keratomalacia

53. **Keratometer is useful for all the following conditions EXCEPT**
    - A. Measure the radius of curvature of anterior surface of cornea
    - B. IOL power calculation
    - C. Measurement of corneal astigmatic error
    - D. Measurement of corneal endothelial cell count

54. **Darkening of lens on exposure to UV rays in photochromic lenses is due to disintegration of**
    - A. Aluminium phosphate
    - B. Silver Halide
    - C. Borosilicate
    - D. Polycarbonate

55. **Instrument used to assess peripheral retina**
    - A. 90 dioptre lens
    - B. Direct ophthalmoscope
    - C. Optical coherence tomography
    - D. Indirect ophthalmoscopy

56. **All the following condition can cause coloured haloes EXCEPT**
    - A. Cataract
    - B. Acute narrow angle glaucoma
    - C. Episcleritis
    - D. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

57. **Instrument used to predict the visual acuity following cataract surgery**
    - A. Potential acuity meter
    - B. Arden gratings
    - C. Pelli Robson chart
    - D. Vistech chart

58. **Commonest cause of bilateral proptosis**
    - A. Orbital tumors
    - B. Orbital cellulitis
    - C. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
    - D. Orbital hemorrhage

59. **Which of the following is a feature of concave lenses?**
    - A. Object moves in the same direction as the lens
    - B. Object moves in the opposite direction of the lens
    - C. Object appears magnified
    - D. Distortion of image when lens is rotated

60. **Which of the following tonometry is not based on applanation?**
    - A. Air puff tonometer
    - B. Schiotz tonometer
    - C. Tonopen
    - D. Non Contact tonometers

61. **Which dye is used for identifying corneal epithelial defects?**
    - A. Indocyanine green
    - B. Fluorescein
    - C. Rose Bengal
    - D. Trypan Blue

62. **Which laser is used for treating after cataract?**
    - A. Nd YAG laser
    - B. Argon laser
    - C. Diode laser
    - D. Ruby laser

63. **Roving ring scotoma is seen in**
    - A. Pseudophakia
    - B. High myopia
    - C. Glaucoma
    - D. In Aphakia corrected with spectacles

64. **SAFE (Surgery, Antibiotics, Face washing, Environment) strategy is for control of**
    - A. Glaucoma
    - B. Dacryocystitis
    - C. Trachoma
    - D. Corneal ulcer

65. **All are used to check visual acuity in children EXCEPT**
    - A. VEP
    - B. Perimetry
    - C. Cardiff acuity cards
    - D. Teller acuity cards

66. **All are features of concomitant squint EXCEPT**
    - A. No diplopia
    - B. Primary deviation equals secondary deviation
    - C. Abnormal head posture
    - D. No restriction of ocular movements

67. **Amblyopia in children is most commonly caused by**
    - A. Hypermetropia
    - B. Astigmatism
    - C. Myopia
    - D. Congenital cataract

68. **Most common organism causing corneal ulcer in contact lens wearers?**
    - A. Pneumococci
    - B. Staphylococci
    - C. Fusarium
    - D. Pseudomonas

69. **Magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope**
    - A. 10 times
    - B. 20 times
    - C. 5 times
    - D. 15 times

70. **Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is a complication associated with which refractive error?**
    - A. Myopia
    - B. Hypermetropia
    - C. Astigmatism
    - D. Presbyopia

71. **Following are the target diseases identified for vision 2020 in India EXCEPT**
    - A. Cataract
    - B. Onchocerciasis
    - C. Childhood blindness
    - D. Glaucoma

72. **Linen, dressings and metallic instruments are generally sterilized by**
    - A. Autoclave
    - B. Hot-air oven
    - C. Ethylene oxide
    - D. Chemical sterilization

73. **The far point is beyond infinity or behind the eye in**
    - A. Myopia
    - B. Astigmatism
    - C. Presbyopia
    - D. Hypermetropia

74. **Most common cause of low vision in children?**
    - A. Cataract
    - B. Corneal opacity
    - C. Refractive error
    - D. Strabismus

75. **Which is not true of congenital esotropia?**
    - A. Occurs before 6 months of age
    - B. Large angle of deviation
    - C. Associated with cross fixation
    - D. Associated with high hypermetropia

76. **The normal AC/A ratio per diopter of accommodation is**
    - A. 6-10 prism diopters
    - B. 3-5 prism diopters
    - C. 1-2 prism diopters
    - D. 12-15 prism diopters

77. **Which of the following conditions produce sudden loss of vision?**
    - A. Central retinal artery occlusion
    - B. Primary open angle glaucoma
    - C. Cataract
    - D. Retinitis pigmentosa

78. **In which of the following conditions is topical steroids indicated?**
    - A. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis
    - B. Allergic conjunctivitis
    - C. Corneal ulcer
    - D. Acute Dacryocystitis

79. **Which of the following is not true about direct ophthalmoscopy?**
    - A. Uniocular procedure
    - B. Image magnified 15 times
    - C. Image is real and inverted
    - D. Central fundus up to equator is seen

80. Which is true about pseudopterygium?
    - A. Is a degenerative condition
    - B. Probe cannot be passed beneath it
    - C. Always stationary
    - D. Follows exposure to ultraviolet rays or dus
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